I know this sounds awkward, but in sentences such as "He said me being here was wonderful," it's obviously grammatically incorrect to say "me being here." It should be "my being" because we need to use it as a gerund and conform to the grammatical structure. But what about in the example of "If he had my doing (of) this from the beginning, we would have succeeded?" Because if you say, "If he had me do this from the beginning," there seems to be a conflict of "had" and "do" because both are verbs. Can someone explain, please?

Here is the NY Times grammar example: Aurélie Filipetti, 38, a novelist and a legislator, was named culture minister. She had made public an account of being groped by Dominique Strauss-Kahn, the man whom many thought would be the Socialist candidate.

They say it should be "who" and not "whom" because the example here is that it's ultimately the verb being done by the subject that counts, not the "many thought" part (seems the verb gives priority to the subject rather than the other way around).

I know this example sounds awkward, but it’s obviously grammatically incorrect to say "me being here" in sentences like this one:

1. He said me being here was wonderful.

That instance of me being should be my being because we need to use being as a gerund phrase so that it can be the subject of the verb was and so conform to the grammatical structure of Subject–Verb≠Complement. 

But what about in this second example?

2. If he had my doing (of) this from the beginning, we would have succeeded.

Because if you say it this way:

3. If he had me do this from the beginning, we would have succeeded.

Now there seems to be a conflict of had and do because both are verbs. Can someone explain, please?

Here is the NY Times grammar example: the After Deadline blog posting of 2012-05-29:

Aurélie Filipetti, 38, a novelist and a legislator, was named culture minister. She had made public an account of being groped by Dominique Strauss-Kahn, the man whom many thought would be the Socialist candidate.

They say it should be who and not whom because the example here is that it's ultimately the verb being done by the subject that counts, not the "many thought" part (seems the verb gives priority to the subject rather than the other way around).

I know this sounds awkward, but in sentences such as "He said me being here was wonderful," it's obviously grammatically incorrect to say "me being here." It should be "my being" because we need to use it as a gerund and conform to the grammatical structure. But what about in the example of "If he had my doing (of) this from the beginning, we would have succeeded?" Because if you say, "If he had me do this from the beginning," there seems to be a conflict of "had" and "do" because both are verbs. Can someone explain, please?

Here is the NY Times grammar example:

Aurélie Filipetti, 38, a novelist and a legislator, was named culture minister. She had made public an account of being groped by Dominique Strauss-Kahn, the man whom many thought would be the Socialist candidate.

They say it should be "who" and not "whom" because the example here is that it's ultimately the verb being done by the subject that counts, not the "many thought" part (seems the verb gives priority to the subject rather than the other way around).

I know this sounds awkward, but in sentences such as "He said me being here was wonderful," it's obviously grammatically incorrect to say "me being here." It should be "my being" because we need to use it as a gerund and conform to the grammatical structure. But what about in the example of "If he had my doing (of) this from the beginning, we would have succeeded?" Because if you say, "If he had me do this from the beginning," there seems to be a conflict of "had" and "do" because both are verbs. Can someone explain, please?

Here is the NY Times grammar example: Aurélie Filipetti, 38, a novelist and a legislator, was named culture minister. She had made public an account of being groped by Dominique Strauss-Kahn, the man whom many thought would be the Socialist candidate.

They say it should be "who" and not "whom" because the example here is that it's ultimately the verb being done by the subject that counts, not the "many thought" part (seems the verb gives priority to the subject rather than the other way around).

I know this sounds awkward, but in sentences such as "He said me being here was wonderful," it's obviously grammatically incorrect to say "me being here." It should be "my being" because we need to use it as a gerund and conform to the grammatical structure. But what about in the example of "If he had my doing (of) this from the beginning, we would have succeeded?" Because if you say, "If he had me do this from the beginning," there seems to be a conflict of "had" and "do" because both are verbs. Can someone explain, please?

I know this sounds awkward, but in sentences such as "He said me being here was wonderful," it's obviously grammatically incorrect to say "me being here." It should be "my being" because we need to use it as a gerund and conform to the grammatical structure. But what about in the example of "If he had my doing (of) this from the beginning, we would have succeeded?" Because if you say, "If he had me do this from the beginning," there seems to be a conflict of "had" and "do" because both are verbs. Can someone explain, please?

Here is the NY Times grammar example:

Aurélie Filipetti, 38, a novelist and a legislator, was named culture minister. She had made public an account of being groped by Dominique Strauss-Kahn, the man whom many thought would be the Socialist candidate.

They say it should be "who" and not "whom" because the example here is that it's ultimately the verb being done by the subject that counts, not the "many thought" part (seems the verb gives priority to the subject rather than the other way around).