It is common to put adverbs of manner after a direct object. But is it grammatically correct to put an adjective after noun? As in:

  1. Since then there have been reports, inquiries and guidance galore.

Why can't it be like this, if it's an adjective modifying a noun:

  1. Since then there have been galore reports, inquiries and guidance.

Also, I am not sure whether this is a postpositive adjective or a reduced phrase adjective.

I have Googled and but couldn't get the actual answer of it.


Galore is an interesting word, an example of postpositive adjective.


The Irish phrase go lear literally translates as “to sufficiency.” If there are sufficient enough bananas to build a house with them, you’d say that there are bananas galore.

The word is an example of a postpositive adjective, which means it comes after the word it describes. So when you go to a circus and 700 clowns surround you, don’t say “There are galore clowns,” because the correct way to express your terror is this: “There are clowns galore. Help!”


  • 1
    Your answer seems helpful... I have another question; can we call it as reduced phrase? – Ahmed Jul 7 '18 at 18:17
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    @IqbalAhmedSiyal It's just a single word adjective, that comes after the noun. It's not a 'reduced phrase' – Mitch Jul 7 '18 at 19:02
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    It can't be a reduced phrase because galore can't be used as a predicate adjective; in particular, it can't be the predicate adjective of a putative *guidance which was galore that might reduce to guidance galore. Galore is a stock example of the individual peculiarities of individual lexical items in English or any other language. – John Lawler Jul 7 '18 at 21:12

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