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It is common to put adverbs of manner after a direct object. But is it grammatically correct to put an adjective after noun? As in:

  1. Since then there have been reports, inquiries and guidance galore.

Why can't it be like this, if it's an adjective modifying a noun:

  1. Since then there have been galore reports, inquiries and guidance.

Also, I am not sure whether this is a postpositive adjective or a reduced phrase adjective.

I have Googled and but couldn't get the actual answer of it.

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Galore is an interesting word, an example of postpositive adjective.

Usage:

The Irish phrase go lear literally translates as “to sufficiency.” If there are sufficient enough bananas to build a house with them, you’d say that there are bananas galore.

The word is an example of a postpositive adjective, which means it comes after the word it describes. So when you go to a circus and 700 clowns surround you, don’t say “There are galore clowns,” because the correct way to express your terror is this: “There are clowns galore. Help!”

(Vocabulary.com)

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    Your answer seems helpful... I have another question; can we call it as reduced phrase? – Ahmed Jul 7 '18 at 18:17
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    @IqbalAhmedSiyal It's just a single word adjective, that comes after the noun. It's not a 'reduced phrase' – Mitch Jul 7 '18 at 19:02
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    It can't be a reduced phrase because galore can't be used as a predicate adjective; in particular, it can't be the predicate adjective of a putative *guidance which was galore that might reduce to guidance galore. Galore is a stock example of the individual peculiarities of individual lexical items in English or any other language. – John Lawler Jul 7 '18 at 21:12

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