The phrase ante Christum natum translates to 'before the birth of Christ,' and Wikipedia says it is the (likely outdated) Latin equivalent to BC, in the same way post Christum natum is the equivalent to AD.
I came across this phrase today and I'd really like to use it in a piece of academic writing in which I'm constantly drawing distinctions between the Christian and the Classical. I want to know if it would be acceptable to use the phrase as part of a sentence to refer to something occurring before the year AD 1, but not to a specific year in time. Here is an example:
Virgil, who writes ante Christum natum, links the figure of Fortune to the divine will of Jupiter.
What do you think?