My question stems from the usage of the word 'had' in contexts indicating consumption. For example: "I had a glass of water." A second example: "I had a great time."
My traditional understanding of the word 'had' derives from the infinitive "to have." I thus thought that this may be a second definition of the word where it means "to have consumed," or that it may simply indicate possession accompanied by an understood implication of consumption.
An alternate explanation I thought of was that it means what it says: "I had a glass of water." This being past tense, the speaker no longer possesses the glass of water, and the understood meaning is that they no longer possess it as a result of their consumption.
A secondary question would be how to indicate the alternate explanation without the inference of consumption being made by whomever I am addressing.
Any thoughts on this would be welcomed.
Thank you!