The Wikipedia page for the perfect aspect says the following regarding the origin of the verb 'have' as the English auxiliary for the the aspect:
The have-perfect developed from a construction whereby the verb meaning have denoted possession, and the past participle was an adjective modifying the object, as in I have the work done. This came to be reanalysed, with the object becoming the object of the main verb, and the participle becoming a dependent of the have verb, as in I have done the work. The construction could then be generalised to be used also with intransitive verbs.
This theory sounds vaguely plausible and I cannot find an adequate explanation elsewhere. However, this claim has no Wikipedia citation (as marked on the page).
Is this the reason 'have' is used as the auxiliary?
If so, can you find a reliable source?