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I've been watching a TV show called Two and a Half Men and there's a part where Allan says to Charlie:
Why what'd you do?
and Charlie replies
I did Rose.
I've researched this and found that the word "did" here means "have sex", so basically he meant:
I had sex with Rose
But my doubt is why was the word "did" used to represent the "sex act"? What is the origin of that usage?
Link to the video: YouTube (the timestamp is 0:11)
asked Feb 1 at 14:51
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OED mentions Shakespeare in its first citation.
1594 W. Shakespeare Titus Andronicus iv. ii. 76 Chiron. Thou hast vndone our mother. Aron. Villaine I haue done thy mother.
It also surmises “probably arising from wordplay on undo v. 8b; cf. also undo v. 8d.”
8b. To destroy in respect of means or position; to ruin. (first citation 1390)
8d. To ruin by seducing.
So it appears that undo in Shakespeare’s play had the meaning of “destroy in respect of position; ruin by seducing” and he created a ribald pun.
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answered Feb 1 at 15:25
Andrew Leach♦Andrew Leach
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Green’s Dictionary of Slang has a few early usage examples from the 16th century. The sense appears to be an extension of the meaning of “do”
in the sense of “attack”:
- to attack, literal or figurative
(a) (also do with) of a man, to copulate with a woman; occas. vice versa.
c.1534 Bourchier Huon of Burdeux I 155: She is myn owne, therefore I wyll do with her at my pleasure.
c.1566 [UK] Harman Caveat for Common Cursetours in Viles & Furnivall (1907) 72: This goodman [...] lay down by her, and straight would have had to do with her.
1573 [UK] ‘Cambridg Libell’ in May & Bryson Verse Libel 336: Tom Allen rides woynge, / [...] / Some say he hath been Doynge.
answered Feb 1 at 19:58
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