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In the below two sentences, how intend(verb) has been used? Transitively or Intransitively?

Dictionary is saying that it is used as a transitive verb. But my question is there are TO and FOR after the verb; hence, they should be used as intransitive verbs right?

1.We intend to leave in a month.

2.A fund intended for emergency use only.

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[1] We intend to leave in a month.

[2] A fund intended for emergency use only.

You are right. "Intend" is intransitive in both examples.

In [1] "intend" is a catenative verb with the infinitival clause "to leave in a month" as its catenative complement. "To" is a marker of the infinitival clause.

In [2] the past participle verb "intended" is head of the past participial clause "intended for emergency use only", functioning as modifier of "fund". It's the semantic equivalent of the relative clause in "A fund that is/was intended for emergency use only".

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  • Would you not see 'The readers are clearly intended to identify with the main character [...]' as a passivised form of 'The writer clearly intends his readers to identify with the main character'?
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Commented Sep 30, 2020 at 11:32
  • 1
    The effect of switching from the active to the passive is to switch from a transitive clause to an intransitive one.
    – BillJ
    Commented Sep 30, 2020 at 13:37

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