HEALTH WARNING: I stand by this answer, but I can find no dictionary online pedagogical website which confirms it. Not does the one offering examples from literature, other than one from Beowolf. However, I offer this view, for what it is worth.
Yes, the two adjectives are (and must be) in apposition to the subject. No, they are not misplaced: the (call it) displacement is literary. The adjectives are delayed to give a particular weight and mood to them, as if the old man they describe has become like the lichen-encrusted, lonely rocks among which he lives. But the writer achieves this with powerful economy by the delay of these adjectives. You might get away with it in a speech, if you were making an impassioned (and so poetic) appeal for the man's rescue. But it would not be expected for instructions to the helicopter pilots sent to retrieve him, or a factual report.
Your question is therefore interesting, in raising a question about why so many definitions and the associated examples seem confined to cases where the appositives are actually adjacent to their noun, giving rise to this apparent (but, I am claiming, incomplete) rule.