Do we say "Nothing is compared with the Egyptian pyramids" or "Nothing is compared to the Egyptian pyramids"?
If both are correct,is either one favourable in general or in British or American English?
Do we say "Nothing is compared with the Egyptian pyramids" or "Nothing is compared to the Egyptian pyramids"?
If both are correct,is either one favourable in general or in British or American English?
Saying "Nothing is compared with the Egyptian pyramids" or "Nothing is compared to the Egyptian pyramids" implies that no one has ever done such a comparison. Eg, no one has ever compared the height of a pyramid with the height of a well-known office building. This is most certainly false.
Saying "Nothing compares with ...", on the other hand, implies that when a comparison is done, the pyramids are always found to be superior in some aspect.
I made a grammatical change to the verb:
In regards to the use of compare to or compare with:
- "Nothing compares with the Egyptian pyramids."
or
- "Nothing compares to the Egyptian pyramids."
From the OED, either with or to is acceptable and my sense is both are used interchangeably with not much difference in AmE & BrE:
to compare: (a thing) for one to compare, (a thing) to be compared, comparable (to, with).
If you want to be pernickety, then strictly speaking it should be "with" or nothing at all.
Why? Because the prefix "com" is Latin for "with" and the word "compare" comes from Latin.
compare (v.) c. 1400, "regard or treat as equal;" early 15c. "liken, make a comparison, represent as similar," from Old French comparer "to compare, liken" (12c.), from Latin comparare "to liken, to compare," from com "with, together" (see com-) + par "equal" (see par (n.)).