The phrase "Most of it's in English" is grammatically correct (it's short for "Most of it is in English"), but it doesn't feel right. Is there a reason it doesn't feel right?
Edit: The thing I'm concerned about is "it's" versus "it is".
asked Jul 25, 2011 at 1:49
-
2This may be a better question to ask in English Language & Usage Chat. How it feels to you may be different than how it feels to others.– MrHenCommented Jul 25, 2011 at 2:36
-
@MrHen: Not sure why the fact that different people may feel differently about a usage means it's not valid for OP to ask about it. Seems just as on-topic to me as, for example, "How offensive is 'cock-up' to Americans"?– FumbleFingersCommented Jul 25, 2011 at 4:20
-
3Perhaps the question about "That's what it's" is relevant (that question is also about "it is" versus "it's"). Or perhaps not.– ShreevatsaRCommented Jul 25, 2011 at 5:26
-
@ShreevatsaR: It's. (Relevant, that is)– Golden CuyCommented Jul 25, 2011 at 6:30
-
@ShreevatsaR: That would be more relevant if we were discussing "Most of it's" as a possible reply to "Is it in English?". But we're not.– FumbleFingersCommented Jul 25, 2011 at 11:53
|
Show 3 more comments
2 Answers
Sure it's right, and it's usual enough. It means, of course, that some communication is in a mix of languages, but that the majority thereof is being communicated in the English language.
-
Agreed -- seems like a perfectly normal, boring utterance of English... Commented Jul 25, 2011 at 3:09
Perhaps the reason it doesn't feel right is because even in the 'contracted' form it has four repetitions of the short "i" sound.
Personally I find the full form (with five repetitions) quite difficult to say quickly.
answered Jul 25, 2011 at 4:16
