In Shakespeare's plays it is common to find contracted words, such as "o'er", "e'en", "sulph'uous", "ta'en". Is it just a literary device or those words were actually pronounced (in day-to-day speech) that way in Early Modern English?
asked Jun 1, 2011 at 13:46
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2I am speculating, but it seems natural, that they were pronounced exactly like that, even in day-to-day speech, but in the case it was in iambic pentameter. ;)– UnreasonCommented Jun 1, 2011 at 15:08
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2 Answers
Those are generally known as poetic tropes. When writing in iambic pentameter, it is necessary to alternate stressed and unstressed syllables, and measure feet to each line. Many of the contractions you see used by Shakespeare and other writers of the period are being employed to make the words fit a particular rhyming or verse scheme.
Some examples are given here, including this line by Donne:
That I / may rise / and stand / o'er throw / me and bend
You can see how the contraction makes the fourth foot work properly.
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Or the opposite when folk singers have to make it "californ-eye-ah" to fit the rhyme.– mgbCommented Jun 1, 2011 at 16:09
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1Well, it does, Colin - in the sense that "poetic convention" is signaled and the works in question were written to be spoken aloud. Any speech marked as "poetic" is normally understood to be common to that purpose (but not others). Commented Jun 2, 2011 at 15:36
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No, it doesn't answer the question. Suppose we have a song writer today who writes the lyrics "we gon' make it right." And suppose somebody asks: do people really ever say "we gon' make ..." or did she write it like that just to make it fit the music? Your reply is "the contraction is being employed to make the wrods fit a particular verse scheme". That doesn't answer the actual question, which is "do people ever say "we gon' make" when they're not writing song lyrics? Commented Apr 5, 2022 at 11:34
It's a literary device known as syncope, the removal of syllables or letters from the middle of a word. It was used to fit the 10 syllables per line of iambic pentameter.
syncope
noun
2: the loss of one or more sounds or letters in the interior of a word (as in fo'c'sle for forecastle).[source: Merriam-Webster Dictionary]
Shakespeare also removed syllables or letters from the beginning of words (aphaearesis), and sometimes the end (apocope). I've seen these used as diction in the dialogue of a few novelists.
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2Hi Darin, welcome to EL&U! Your answer offers useful new information, and as you're a new contributor I've upvoted it, but normally I wouldn't give it a vote because it's not supported by any evidence to distinguish it from mere opinion or guesswork. For guidance, see How to Answer and take our short but useful Tour. And to give you an example of what we're looking for, I've edited your post to add some linked references. I look forward to your next contribution. :-) Commented Apr 4, 2022 at 23:18