I know "as far as the eye can/could see" is an idiom, which means "for a long distance until something is so far away and small it cannot be seen any more", but why is it "eye" instead of "eyes"? Thank you!
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1"Beauty is in the eye of the beholder" The expression "the (human) eye" represents the noun eyesight. Similarly, "We walked there on foot" uses the singular instead of the plural form, the expression "on foot" is short for using our feet to get there.– Mari-Lou ACommented Sep 9, 2022 at 10:21
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Related: Is it "look in the eye" or "look in the eyes" and Why does “something catch my eye” but not “both my eyes”?– Mari-Lou ACommented Sep 9, 2022 at 10:29
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Also compare 'in the eye of' vs 'in the eyes of' and Is "to have a perfect ear for music" a metaphor or a metonymy?– Mari-Lou ACommented Sep 9, 2022 at 10:37
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1 Answer
It is the same sort of generalised usage as in "the pen is mightier than the sword", and it does not refer to any specific eye. A pair of eyes can see no further than a single eye can, so it is not necessary to suggest there is need for more than one eye.
