Skip to main content
3 of 8
clarified title
Lauren
  • 275
  • 1
  • 6
  • 11

Why do some words have two past tense forms (e.g. "dreamed" vs. "dreamt")?

While perusing ShreevatsaR's answer to this question, it occurred to me that my own verbal usage is out of step with what I see in current American literature. When speaking in the past tense, I prefer to use the following forms:

  • dreamt (past tense of to dream)
  • leapt (past tense of to leap)
  • swept (past tense of to sweep)
  • lit (past tense of to light)

However, when reading recently written novels, I see the more regular conjugation of the past tenses, which instead yields dreamed, leaped, sweeped, and lighted. Is it a difference of dialect (US - New England), register (university education), or (possibly) my age (early forties)? I am especially irritated by "lighted" because it takes so much more effort to say than "lit".

ssakl
  • 2.1k
  • 1
  • 19
  • 22