In Book 1, Chapter 2 of A tale of two cities, Dickens wrote the following:
“After that there gallop from Temple Bar, old lady, I won’t trust your fore-legs till I get you on the level,” said this hoarse messenger, glancing at his mare.
In the story, the messenger had just gotten the message and ridden the horse from Temple Bar. The sentence seems perfectly interpretable without the word "there", going as "After that gallop from Temple Bar, I won't trust your fore-legs till I get you on the level."
I am not sure what the word "there" is meant for. To me, it makes the sentence seems very unnatural.
But as I searched around, nobody seems to be taking notice of it.
One potential reason I thought about is that "there" is meant for exclamation, and conveying a similar meaning as in "After that gallop there from Temple Bar".
I am not sure whether it is a common practice, though. I am not a native speaker. I tried searching for similar usages, and the only likely candidate I found is here.
Some dog gone bit that there kitty, and he don't take that from nobody.
The writer explained that this is nonstandard grammar, but I don't know where I may be able to find any reference for this nonstandard grammar.
X
is an emphatic version of thatX
; similarly for this hereY
. Dickens is describing England 200 years ago; one characteristic of English in England is that there are local dialects that vary a great deal from RP, and there are plenty of them. Be prepared for extremely nonstandard speech.