Heard an English teacher claim that:
"Dogs is not my cup of tea" is correct; whereas "Dogs are not my cup of tea" is incorrect.
The explanation was that the verb form of 'to be' must agree with the singular noun 'cup' and not the plural noun 'dogs'.
Checked Google on this and it appears that this is an extreme minority opinion at best. Nonetheless, can the teacher's argument be authoritatively refuted, or must this person be allowed to continue impressing pupils with their dubious insider's knowledge of the English tongue?