Is this phrase correct?
The Contractor declares to have the exclusive right to authorise...
or should it be:
The Contractor declares that it has the exclusive right to authorise...
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1 Answer
Your first sentence is grammatically correct. In your second one use 'impersonal IT' is wrong. Put 'he' instead. It would be nice. If by any chance you want to retain 'it' express it like this:
*The contractor declares that it is his exclusive right ...
Here 'it' is anaphoric in a pseudo cleft sentence. Pseudo cleft is the name given to a sentence which , otherwise straight forward, we cleave into two halves to lay intended stress on something. Your examples are case in point.
However if it refers to a company then the issue is different. There might have been no need of asking the question.
answered Sep 14, 2017 at 10:04
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2"The Contractor" may be an it if the contractor is a corporate entity rather than a person.– Andrew Leach ♦Commented Sep 14, 2017 at 10:13
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Ok, but "It" is used purposefully because the contractor is a company (impersonal), not an individual... Commented Sep 14, 2017 at 10:16
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That's a point but still 'it' is a misfit. Get rid of 'contractor' instead. Commented Sep 14, 2017 at 10:17
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Context would be of help. Company is a 'legal person'. In that case 'it' will do. In our parts we are in the habit of using 'they'. Commented Sep 14, 2017 at 10:28
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1What am I missing? Neither phrase is correct and might we always leave out irrelevances such as … the exclusive right to authorise... except when they make a difference. No-one can declare to have anything. The closest he or it could come would be to declare himself to have or, yes, declare that it has, which constructions match special situations such as Anything to declare at Customs barriers, not everyday English. Contractors argue over/claim/insist on/maintain/legislate on the basis of but never declare a right. Declaration is not a property of rights. Commented Sep 15, 2017 at 17:22