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There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.

According to my very limited knowledge, shouldn’t it be "which came over" in place of "come over"?

By this logic is it grammatical to say: "There’s a chicken come over on a plane"?

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    That would be a very unusual way to phrase it in American English today. Remember, The Great Gatsby is nearly a century old.
    – Davislor
    Commented Mar 2, 2023 at 23:45
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    And it's still an understandable construct in some cases: "I think he's a tourist fresh off the plane." Although I think we'd usually put a comma before fresh.
    – davolfman
    Commented Mar 3, 2023 at 1:39
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    I believe "come" is being used as a participle as in "Joy to the world, the Lord is come!"
    – David42
    Commented Mar 3, 2023 at 13:57
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    As a native US speaker, it doesn't sound unusual to me, but I'm over 60 and read a lot, so I might be biased on the subject of obsolescence. Commented Mar 3, 2023 at 21:24
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    As another native US speaker, this is comprehensible but definitely not normal phrasing. (I would have said "that came over".) To me it sounds like slang I'm not familiar with, which would be appropriate for a slang phrase from a century ago. Commented Mar 4, 2023 at 22:00

3 Answers 3

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It's an example of a reduced relative clause

A reduced relative clause is a relative clause that is not marked by an explicit relative pronoun or complementizer such as who, which or that. An example is the clause I saw in the English sentence This is the man I saw. Unreduced forms of this relative clause would be "This is the man that I saw." or "...whom I saw." Wikipedia

EDIT 15/03/23
(Many thanks to @Stef in the comments) I hadn't considered the fact that F.Scott Fitzgerald would have used be to form the perfect with the intransitive verb ‘come’ in “a nightingale is come over on the Cunard…”. Although The Great Gatsby was published in 1925, nearly a hundred years ago, I wasn't aware this construction, at least in American English, was still in use at the time and some native speakers would consider ‘come’ in ‘come over’ as an adjective.

Dictionary.com says [emphasis mine]

  1. (used in archaic or literary constructions with some intransitive verbs to form the perfect tense):
    He is come. Agamemnon to the wars is gone.

Wiktionary offers this quote from Shakespeare's Macbeth, 1601

  1. They are not yet come back.
    instead of the modern They have not yet come back.

From the 1722 novel, Moll Flanders, by Daniel Defoe; we have two examples of the perfect tense used in the same excerpt.

but at his Defire I altered that Resolution, and he is come over to England alfo, where we refolve to spend the Remainder of our Years in fincere Penitence for the wicked Lives we have lived.

From The Tenant of Wildfell Hall written by Anne Brontë in 1848

I went down to dinner resolving to be cheerful and well-conducted, and kept my resolution very creditably, considering how my head ached, and how internally wretched I felt. I don't know what is come over me of late; my very energies, both mental and physical, must be strangely impaired,…


In The Great Gatsby quotation, the modernised version would be:

…that I think must be a nightingale [which has] come over on the Cunard or White line

The relative clause with a present perfect construction could be replaced with ‘having’

…that I think must be a nightingale having come over on the Cunard or White line.

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    It would be unexceptional to say "...brought over on the Cunard line" where brought is passive in meaning (the chicken is what was brought, it's not what was doing the bringing). I think what makes Fitzgerald's example unusual is that "come" is an intransitive verb, unlike "saw" or "brought".
    – Stuart F
    Commented Mar 2, 2023 at 13:36
  • @StuartF yes, that's a good explanation of what's happening here.
    – Mari-Lou A
    Commented Mar 2, 2023 at 15:07
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    I'm not entirely sure it's an unusual expression for the 1920's. "Come over on...[a ship or shipping line]" has the air of an idiomatic expression about it.
    – tbrookside
    Commented Mar 2, 2023 at 22:47
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    No, you can’t reduce like that. The reductions here are not correct: a bird that has come over on a boata bird come over on a boat. You can plainly see that here: a boy who has laughed at a clowna boy laughed at a clown. And here: the man who has seen methe man seen me. And here: the child who has eaten candythe child eaten candy. Commented Mar 3, 2023 at 16:34
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    @Stef I hadn't considered that the auxiliary omitted was "is" but I think you are right. In the past, I know that the auxiliary was used with past participles to form the present perfect that we find in many Bible passages and in 17-19th century works of literature: He is risen, He is come and one I found by Anne Brontë "I don't know what is come over me of late." Today, it would be "He has risen", "He has come" and "…has come over me"
    – Mari-Lou A
    Commented Mar 5, 2023 at 11:29
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The sentence uses ellipsis to convey meaning in an economical way. Although formal grammar might require "that has come over" or "that came over", the meaning is unambiguous and clear without such expansion of the text. The following general quotation from the Cambridge dictionary also serendipitously deals with your specific concern about the missing "which" or "that":

Cambridge
Textual ellipsis:
When we can easily understand everything in the sentence because of the surrounding text, we use textual ellipsis. For example, we know that certain verbs and adjectives can be followed by a that-clause, so if we see a clause without that after such verbs and adjectives, we assume that the writer or speaker wants us to understand the same meaning as a that-clause:
I knew [that] something terrible had happened.

If meaning is clear and unambiguous, insistence on formal grammar may merely seem pedantic and plodding. This raises the question of what should be the philosophical and operational basis of formal grammar; but that is too broad a topic to be tackled here.

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    English doesn't allow all "ellipsis" simply because the meaning remains unambiguous and clear. Whether a certain example of ellipsis is grammatical or not heavily depends on usage, which does change over time. The ellipsis of "that has" may have been possible and even natural back in 1925, but it doesn't seem to be anymore unless of course you can produce some recent examples of the past participle "come" being used without the help of the auxiliary have. Moreover, your "ellipsis" answer cannot explain how "that came" can transform into "come", because transformation is not ellipsis.
    – JK2
    Commented Mar 4, 2023 at 2:51
  • @JK2 Moreover, your "ellipsis" answer cannot explain how "that came" can transform into "come", come is simply an irregular colloquialism - very common.
    – Greybeard
    Commented Mar 5, 2023 at 12:46
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  • This must be rain falling from the sky. (Said while the rain is falling.)

  • This must be rain fallen from the sky. (Said after it has fallen.)

The word "come" in the quoted sentence is syntactically parallel to "fallen" in this example.

In English, past participles are usually passive participles, but in these examples they are being used as active participles. The present participle, "falling", is unambiguously active rather than passive.

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