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(a): The countries did notnot have much of a choicemuch of a choice when it came to vaccines.

(b): The countries did notnot have much choicemuch choice when it came to vaccines.

Are the sentences above semantically identical? Are there any differences between them? Which one is more natural? I

I am particularly curious about whether these two expressions--much of a (countable noun) and much (countable noun) without an indefinite article--are always interchangeable.

(a): The countries did not have much of a choice when it came to vaccines.

(b): The countries did not have much choice when it came to vaccines.

Are the sentences above semantically identical? Are there any differences between them? Which one is more natural? I am particularly curious about whether these two expressions--much of a (countable noun) and much (countable noun) without an indefinite article--are always interchangeable.

(a): The countries did not have much of a choice when it came to vaccines.

(b): The countries did not have much choice when it came to vaccines.

Are the sentences above semantically identical? Are there any differences between them? Which one is more natural?

I am particularly curious about whether these two expressions--much of a (countable noun) and much (countable noun) without an indefinite article--are always interchangeable.

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Does "much of a (countable noun)" mean the same as "much (countable noun)?"

(a): The countries did not have much of a choice when it came to vaccines.

(b): The countries did not have much choice when it came to vaccines.

Are the sentences above semantically identical? Are there any differences between them? Which one is more natural? I am particularly curious about whether these two expressions--much of a (countable noun) and much (countable noun) without an indefinite article--are always interchangeable.