In the OED, are definitions that don't explictlyexplicitly indicate it is figurative use always with literal examples only, or can they be figurative?
My recent questionanswer has caused quite some confusion among high rep users, apparently because they think that my answer makes no sense, and the oedOED is listing figurative examples without saying so.
To indicate; to betoken.
1832 Philol. Museum I. 335 The great mass of evidence that speaks for an intimate affinity between the Pelasgians and the Hellenes.
is this literal use?