In the OED, are definitions that don't explicitly indicate it is figurative use always with literal examples only, or can they be figurative?

My recent [answer][1] has caused quite some confusion among high rep users, apparently because they think that my answer makes no sense, and the OED is listing figurative examples without saying so.

e.g.

> "speak for"
> 
>  4.       To indicate; to betoken.
> 
>     1832 Philol. Museum I. 335 The great mass of evidence that speaks for an intimate affinity between the Pelasgians and the Hellenes.

is this literal use?


  [1]: https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/463186/can-the-facts-literally-speak-for-themselves/463203?noredirect=1#comment1117736_463203