Is the "-re" supposed to be silent in the pronunciation of the word "macabre"? I'm aware that dictionaries give two pronunciations, \məkäb\ and \mekäbrə, but is one of them just a fixed "error" of the other, when the loan word from French was first imported? In other words, which pronunciation is more historically true?

Is the "-re" supposed to be silent in the pronunciation of the word macabre? I'm aware that dictionaries give two pronunciations, \məkäb\ and \mekäbrə, but is one of them just a fixed "error" of the other, when the loan word from French was first imported? In other words, which pronunciation is more historically true?

Is there the "-re" supposed to be silent in the pronunciation of the word "macabre"? I'm aware that dictionaries give two pronunciations, \məkäb\ and \mekäbrə, but is one of them just a fixed "error" of the other, when the loan word from French was first imported? In other words, which pronunciation is more historically true?

Is the "-re" supposed to be silent in the pronunciation of the word "macabre"? I'm aware that dictionaries give two pronunciations, \məkäb\ and \mekäbrə, but is one of them just a fixed "error" of the other, when the loan word from French was first imported? In other words, which pronunciation is more historically true?