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In your interviews for an ESL teacher, you are asked a question of this sort:

What is the difference between:

a. I am taking the bus tomorrow.
b. I am going to take the bus tomorrow.

Or

a. I lived in Kerala for 2 years.
b. I used to live in Kerala for 2 years.

Surely, they mean the same thing. That's precisely what makes it difficult to explain the difference. Could anyone help me with it?

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    I find 2b distinctly worrying. Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 13:18
  • I'm not sure why this has been closed. 1a and b mean the same (the present continuous can be used to refer to future plans) but, as Edwin says, 2b is incorrect. We don't use used to when we mention the length of time for which something happened. Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 14:18
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    What @KateBunting said. I'm voting to reopen on the grounds that I can't find any previous ELU questions asking about the validity of specifying FOR a duration, length of time as an adverbial element modifying used to when used with the "habitual action in the past" sense. Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 15:07

1 Answer 1

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a) I am taking the bus tomorrow.
b) I am going to take the bus tomorrow.

If I was back teaching ESL, I would tell my students that both of these sentences, while grammatical, are not fluent English. Native speakers don't say sentences like that. We can deal with the semantic difference later.

  • First, nobody ever says "I am" in two words, unless they're reading aloud. Just as I will is usually pronounced I'll /a:l/, I am is almost always contracted to I'm /a:m/, unless the am is stressed, as it is when it appears isolated at the end of the sentence, like:
    He's not enjoying this as much as I am.
  • Second, nobody ever says going to; it's always pronounced gonna /'gənə/. It's a fused idiom, like have to /'hæftə/, with its own grammar and pronunciation.

As for the meaning difference, there is little, but what there is focusses on the immediacy of the imagined future event. For instance,

  • Look out! That rock is gonna fall!
  • ??Look out! That rock will fall!

The progressive for the future is usually a matter of personal plan, whereas gonna signals imminence, if anything. It's not surprising there isn't much difference in most contexts.


a) I lived in Kerala for 2 years.
b) *I used to live in Kerala for 2 years

(a) is a normal grammatical sentence, but (b) is ungrammatical, because of the grammar of the idiom used to. That idiom asserts a proposition in the past tense and also presupposes its negation in the present tense. That sounds complicated, and it is.

  • I used to live in Michigan.
    (I lived in Michigan is the past proposition, which can be denied;
    I don't live in Michigan is the present proposition, which can't be denied.)

If I say I used to live in Michigan and I never lived there, I'm lying. That's the assertion in the past. But if I have lived in Michigan all my life and I say that, am I lying? Certainly misleading, but by presupposition.

As for for 2 years, that won't go with used to here because the proposition being asserted is not a condition like living in Kerala, but rather an action, with a beginning and end. The only way you can use an action with used to is by considering it as a repeated action

  • He used to smoke cigarettes/drink gin/pick his nose/compliment you

that is no longer repeated. But would mean that [living in Kerala for two years] was something I used to do. That, of course, doesn't work. But

  • He used to go to work for 2 hours and then duck out for a drink.

is perfectly grammatical if reprehensible, because it's an activity that can be repeated -- that there's time to repeat. So the temporal phrases are fine.


I don't know how these answers would affect an examining board. Given the terrible examples we get here of awful instructional resources, I have my doubt. But it's all true.

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    "nobody ever says going to" - this is just wrong. Certainly in the UK, even if "gonna" is probably more common, "going to" is perfectly normal and acceptable (in a way that pronouncing the have of "have to" [in the sense of "must"] as anything other than "haff" would not be normal or acceptable).
    – psmears
    Commented Sep 19, 2021 at 22:00
  • I can speak authoritatively only about US pronunciation, and then only on certain topics. Plus there are plenty of individual differences; but this is for an examining board, who are sposta know this already. Commented Sep 20, 2021 at 1:04
  • I (UK) elide going to to a certain extent, but I rarely if ever omit the 't' sound. Commented Sep 20, 2021 at 9:30
  • Fair enough. It would be worth tweaking your answer to say, for example, "Native speakers (of US English)", and "nobody ever says (in US English)". There are exam boards that address different varieties of English.
    – psmears
    Commented Sep 20, 2021 at 15:25

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