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Correcting homework:

  • A bicycle (any circular object is valid in its absence)

It seems more natural to me to say...

  • A bicycle (any circular object is valid in one's absence)

... yet I can't find the rule. I'm guessing it's because the lack of a bicycle means is not a concrete noun.

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  • 2
    What do you intend to say? Bicycles are not circular.
    – Greybeard
    Commented May 21, 2020 at 8:55
  • It seems pretty clear to me that in the absence of a bicycle, a circular object can be used. This is from a maths pi experiment activity.
    – Mark Dixon
    Commented May 21, 2020 at 9:14
  • It seems to me that the issue here may be that the antecedent of 'its' is too far removed. If the word order is changed, it is less problematic: A bicycle (in its absence any other circular object is valid). But the pronoun needs to be its, not one's, for the reasons explained in Jeff Semmens' answer.
    – Shoe
    Commented May 21, 2020 at 10:07
  • Thanks shoe. For me, I still think your example feels incorrect. :s
    – Mark Dixon
    Commented May 21, 2020 at 10:12
  • Absent context, the string is meaningless.
    – Hot Licks
    Commented May 21, 2020 at 12:40

2 Answers 2

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The first phrase is grammatically correct. The second phrase should be rewritten as "any other circular object is valid in the absence of one." Your use of "one's" would likely seem strange to most English speakers as the use of one as a pronoun is nearly always in reference to an indefinite person (e.g. "One's experiences shape one's expectations.").

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  • I'd say that 'any other circular object is valid in the absence of one' is still very awkward-sounding; 'any other circular object is acceptable if one is not available' or conversationally 'any other round object will do if you can't find one' sound less eccentric. // I agree, though: the question is essentially about the use of one's (hence my editing out distractors). 'There are three dolls in the window; one's eyes are missing' sounds acceptable to me. But there comes a dividing line. I haven't found where, yet.
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Commented May 21, 2020 at 12:03
  • The first phrase isn't correct: We use ‘one’ to talk about an object in general (6) and ‘it’ for a specific example of an object (7). See: english.stackexchange.com/questions/356191/pronoun-one-vs-it
    – Mark Dixon
    Commented May 22, 2020 at 11:07
  • Also, the use of one as a pronoun for objects is valid. "Has anyone got a pencil? Yes, I've got one."
    – Mark Dixon
    Commented May 22, 2020 at 11:08
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We use ‘one’ to talk about an object in general (6) and ‘it’ for a specific example of an object (7): Pronoun: one vs it

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  • This does not address the different distribution found with one's. 'In the absence of one' is a lot more idiomatic than 'in one's absence' for non-human referents.
    – Edwin Ashworth
    Commented May 22, 2020 at 11:16

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