Is it possible that old philosophical writings don't follow our modern grammar rules? Thus, we have to get the meaning of a sentence following the context, not the structure of that sentence?
For example, I was reading following lines, written by John Locke :
"Though the odd opinions and extravagant actions enthusiasm has run men into, were enough to warn them against this wrong principle, so apt to misguide them both in their belief and conduct ; "
Which one is the main clause with main verb? What is the subject of were enough ? (Please note the semicolon)
The odd opinions and extravagant actions can't be the subject of were enough as the meaning would be contradictory.