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  1. Cars have proved helpful to human beings.

  2. Cars have been proved helpful to human beings.

What are the differences between them?

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1 Answer 1

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With reference to Meriam Webster: "prove"

  1. "Cars have proved helpful to human beings" follows the intransitive meaning of prove

    "to turn out especially after trial or test "

    and presents the idea that at least up to now, cars have been and are considered useful to humans.


  1. "Cars have been proved helpful to human beings." uses the passive voice construct of the transitive usage of prove meaning 3.b :

    "to demonstrate as having a particular quality or worth"

    Taken literally this usage implies that "Someone out there ran a controlled scientific trial that demonstrated cars are helpful". This is a bit unlikely and requires some artistic license to present the idea conveyed by the first form.

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  • Does "Cars have been proved helpful to human beings.", without "to be", equal "Cars have been proved to be helpful to human beings." please?
    – user322925
    Commented Nov 13, 2018 at 8:28
  • Yes they are equal. There is no semantic difference between the two formulations.
    – traktor
    Commented Nov 13, 2018 at 10:26

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