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"What they refer to as the habit of dreaming by the Aborigines, is not what the Aborigines themselves believe them to be."

"Them" is referring to dreams. Is the use of 'them' in the second part of the sentence grammatically correct since "habit of dreaming" seems singular to me.

"They" is "Westerners"

Note: The quote in the original version of the question had What Europeans . . . rather than What they . . .

X = any verb ending in ing e.g swimming

Y = a certain group of people e.g Martians

"What everyone refers to as the habit of X(ing) by the Y, is not what the Y themselves believe them to be."

"Them" is referring to X. If I use 'them' in the second part of the sentence, will it be grammatically correct since "habit of X" seems singular.

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"What they refer to as the habit of dreaming by the Aborigines, is not what the Aborigines themselves believe them to be."

"Them" is referring to dreams. Is the use of 'them' in the second part of the sentence grammatically correct since "habit of dreaming" seems singular to me.

"They" is "Westerners"

Note: The quote in the original version of the question had What Europeans . . . rather than What they . . .

"What they refer to as the habit of dreaming by the Aborigines, is not what the Aborigines themselves believe them to be."

"Them" is referring to dreams. Is the use of 'them' in the second part of the sentence grammatically correct since "habit of dreaming" seems singular to me.

"They" is "Westerners"

Note: The quote in the original version of the question had What Europeans . . . rather than What they . . .

Hjgjkghjjkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkkk