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Edwin Ashworth
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I have come across, more and more frequently, the fact that writers move the verb forward in sentences like: Today some English teachers attend to grammatical niceties in a more analytical way than did their predecessors

  • Today some English teachers attend to grammatical niceties in a more analytical way than did their predecessors

in steadinstead of

...than their predecessors did.

  • ...than their predecessors did.

Is it an American/British difference? What is the King's choice (assuming he speaks the King's English)?

I have come across, more and more frequently, that writers move the verb forward in sentences like: Today some English teachers attend to grammatical niceties in a more analytical way than did their predecessors

in stead of

...than their predecessors did.

Is it an American/British difference? What is the King's choice (assuming he speaks the King's English)?

I have come across, more and more frequently, the fact that writers move the verb forward in sentences like:

  • Today some English teachers attend to grammatical niceties in a more analytical way than did their predecessors

instead of

  • ...than their predecessors did.

Is it an American/British difference? What is the King's choice (assuming he speaks the King's English)?

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RegDwigнt
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Subject + verb inversion

I have come across, more and more frequently, that writers move the verb forward in sentences like: Today some English teachers attend to grammatical niceties in a more analytical way than did their predecessors

in stead of

...than their predecessors did.

Is it an American/British difference? What is the King's choice (assuming he speaks the King's English)?