Here's an article titled "NBN rolling out FttDP to 700,000 premises, replacing Optus HFC footprint":
The National Broadband Network (NBN) company has announced that it will be replacing the Optus hybrid fibre-coaxial (HFC) footprint with its fibre-to-the-distribution-point (FttDP) network, with up to 700,000 premises to be covered by the new network technology.
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DOCSIS 3.1 -- currently due to be launched in the second half of 2017 -- would enable HFC users to reach speeds of 1Gbps down/100Mbps up.
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In terms of FttDP speeds, the VDSL box currently being used has the capability to deliver speeds of up to 500Mbps, but, once it is updated to a G.Fast box, has the capacity for 1Gbps.
In the last sentence, there are two main clauses connected with but, and the verb has of the second main clause is in the simple present tense and denotes a scheduled future event.
Is this use of has grammatical?
What if has is replaced with gets?
In terms of FttDP speeds, the VDSL box currently being used has the capability to deliver speeds of up to 500Mbps, but, once it is updated to a G.Fast box, gets the capacity for 1Gbps.
In another question "Very very confused! which verbs can be used in simple present tense for scheduled future events?", the only answer there says, "Almost any action verb can be used in the present tense for a scheduled future event."
Does this mean that stative verbs such as has in the above article cannot generally be used in the present tense for a scheduled future event when used in a main clause?