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Some examples of a weird thing I found. I want to call it a verb tense, but I'm not sure that's accurate:

"24.6% reported having have been injured due to excessive consumption of alcohol."

"When I got up to clear the table, only having have eaten a third of the fish—which was shockingly filling—I noticed that..."

Is this grammatically correct? If so, what is it called? Present participle of the past perfect?

Normally after "having," you would have to use the past participle, but in these cases "have" is used instead of "had."

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  • The first time I read it, I read "having had been" and "having had eaten". It took me a while before I realized that they're written differently. Interesting.
    – Damkerng T.
    Commented Nov 26, 2013 at 9:07
  • Thanks. I actually forgot that part of the question. Is "having had been" and "having had eaten" ok? What are those called?
    – The Phil Lee
    Commented Nov 26, 2013 at 16:34
  • I don't really know if they are okay. But I have feeling that they are not recommended in formal writing. I probably parse them as such because I am quite familiar with phrases like would have had done, could have had done, should have had done, which are so abundant. But if you asked a teacher, she would tell you to remove that had at once.
    – Damkerng T.
    Commented Nov 26, 2013 at 16:57
  • This question appears to be off-topic because it is about a non-existant tense in English.
    – anongoodnurse
    Commented Sep 6, 2014 at 8:11
  • Possessing something (having) you don't (had) isn't possible.
    – samus
    Commented Apr 17, 2018 at 13:01

6 Answers 6

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I don't think these are correct. Having have been would only be correct if the word having is a possession, for example: The dreams I've been having have been about how ...

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  • In which case, you have two verb phrases because of a separate clause: I have been having, and The dreams have been are separate. You're perfectly right, but I think he's asking about using 'having have been' as one verb phrase.
    – Joseph Paduch
    Commented Nov 25, 2018 at 0:07
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I'm not sure how to prove it, but these are not correct English. I have never come across that formation other than due to a lack of proof-reading. Your two examples should read "having eaten" and "having been".

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Both sentences are incorrect because the extra "have" is redundant in both the sentences. But forgiving those errors, "having been injured" looks like a gerund phrase. "Having eaten a third of the fish" seems like a past participle clause to me. Gerund phrases and participle clauses are tricky to differentiate between, so I welcome anyone to correct me if I am wrong.

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Report can be used transitively (report an issue) or intransitively (report to a superior).

Here it is used transitively and takes a the verb have (which then goes in the gerund having).

Have can be used by itself as an auxiliary or a transitive. Here it's used as an auxiliary, and auxiliary have takes a verb in the past participle. In the example, the next verb is have but it is in the present participle having instead of the past participle had. Even then, auxiliary had forming the perfect can't take another perfect-forming auxiliary have (but it can take the possessive have or obligation-indicating have to, for instance)

The only time I can fathom "having had [past part.] would be if I oddly moved a direct object from in between the string of verbs: "I have had made for me three dolls" —> "Having had made for me three dolls, I ...". But even then, it sounds quite old timey and still doesn't allow the second have to be in the present participle.

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The extra "have" is wrong.

"I hate writing. I love having written." -- Dorothy Parker.

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As a student of Anthropology. I am translating old Eastern text (about 3,000 years old). The word that needed translation refers to [Having-Have] I needed confirmation. (Sorry about my technical background and I am not an American. As such my writings needs to overcome the short falls of British and American English in minimizing words in portrayal of its context accurately). I had stumbled upon this website today while doing my research. Absence of clarity. I share with you the little knowledge I have on this issue.

1) [Having-Had] - He was prosecuted, even though having had the proof of his innocence. Explanation: having-had here means in possession of (singular).

2) [Having-Have] - "24.6% reported having have been injured due to excessive consumption of alcohol."
Explanation: "having" here refers to the report containing the above statement and "have"here refers to the 24.6% population; been in the possession of injury (plural) and (first person).

-hope it is helpful. Thank you.

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  • Hello and welcome. I've downvoted this answer because I'm not convinced by the assertions about the relationships between having-had and having-have with plurality. Please add some links to authoritative references and examples from sources such as dictionaries, grammar sites or even google books.
    – Lawrence
    Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 6:57
  • - Dear Lawrence thank you for generously down grading me. Should I come across any of your requests I will surely oblige. Till then, I feel so silly in asking "how do I sign-out or log-out from this wonderful site or do I have to delete my account". Once again thank you, hope I was not a bother to this site and most importantly to you
    – Asogh Khan
    Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 7:43
  • It's only your answer that I've down-voted, not you. I'll remove the down-vote if you can substantiate your answer.
    – Lawrence
    Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 7:48
  • Here's a helpful article about this community's preferences in relation to answers.
    – Lawrence
    Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 7:54
  • - Dear Lawrence thank you very much for taking the time and trouble in answering my silly comment, most appreciated. I feel strange that an apple looks like pineapple and a seeker or an enquirer is called an asker in (US) America. Anyways if it not too much trouble "how do I sign-out.
    – Asogh Khan
    Commented Sep 28, 2017 at 8:19

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