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Sep 12, 2022 at 11:11 comment added Jelila ...boldly split infinitives... :) @loonquawl
Sep 11, 2022 at 8:49 comment added loonquawl @Jelila - or perhaps i was quoting Star Trek :) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Let_He_Who_Is_Without_Sin...
Sep 9, 2022 at 14:48 comment added Jelila You wouldn't say 'him has no sin' , would you? To check this sort of thing, take out the extra words. It's 'let he who hath (has) no sin, cast the first stone...' He, who has no sin... You can't say 'him has'.
Sep 8, 2022 at 6:06 comment added loonquawl @Muzer - no idea whether that is how i got to my version "let he ...", but there is the bible translation "He who ..., let him...." So maybe i got the 'he' from there?
Sep 7, 2022 at 9:48 comment added Muzer Odd, I always heard it as "he"; but yes, that makes little grammatical sense. maybe it's influenced by the KJV which has "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her."
Sep 7, 2022 at 7:25 history edited Andrew Leach CC BY-SA 4.0
Correct case in (mis-)quote
Sep 7, 2022 at 7:24 comment added Andrew Leach @Chaim It is "let him".
Sep 7, 2022 at 2:22 comment added user570286 I would say "let him". See also <english.stackexchange.com/questions/42097/…>.
Sep 7, 2022 at 1:51 comment added Chaim @loonquawl By the way, why is it "let he" and not "let him"?
Sep 6, 2022 at 22:10 comment added fectin Not quite the same, because it emphasizes the fault also existing in the accuser, instead of the fault being widespread. But good approximations nonetheless.
Sep 6, 2022 at 21:00 comment added gidds For the record, the first of those is is of course a reference to the Bible, specifically John 8:7.
Sep 6, 2022 at 14:39 history answered loonquawl CC BY-SA 4.0