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Dec 17, 2023 at 18:38 comment added tchrist Related.
Jul 20, 2021 at 13:28 comment added DjinTonic I took the OP's "...but I had to wonder about the changes in what we call the “mandative subjunctive” in the intervening time." as an indirect but separate question.
Jul 20, 2021 at 13:27 comment added Edwin Ashworth Aren't Mary Jo Stanley and Bernard L. Jr. Satterwhite [sic] American authors? // (1) 'Marjorie had insisted that Barbara spent the morning resting in her stateroom. ' would need appropriate prior context (eg 'The inspector had come close to actually accusing Barbara of the murder.') not to default to the deontic sense. //// Periphrastic should is the normal usage in the UK in formal, and certainly in otherwise ambiguous, situations. It's more powerful at disambiguating than the mandative subjunctive.
Jul 20, 2021 at 13:22 comment added tchrist Although related and insightful, this does not appear to answer the question asked, which was: “But had I written shall or should, would the meaning of the sentence have changed? Moreover, is there any meaningful difference between shall and should in this case? Maybe only among hyper-fastidious speakers?” It moreover ends in a question asking whether using the indicative in places where Americans use the subjunctive is considered informal in British English. If you have a new question, please use the Ask Question button.
Jul 20, 2021 at 12:51 history edited DjinTonic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 20, 2021 at 12:05 history edited DjinTonic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 20, 2021 at 11:59 history answered DjinTonic CC BY-SA 4.0