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Nov 14, 2020 at 21:44 comment added Michael Harvey In 1970 I knew a revolutionary commune a member of which which bought a big Victorian house in Clifton, Bristol for a ludicrously low sum, £5,000 I think. Nobody wanted them. They had a 10 year mortgage. After 2 years the commune fell apart and they stopped paying the mortgage. The lender foreclosed. In those two years there had been a property boom and after the lender had sold the house at auction and deducting costs they were obliged to hand my friends £20,000. 1970s prices.
Nov 14, 2020 at 21:41 vote accept rubiks28
Nov 14, 2020 at 21:31 answer added Cascabel_StandWithUkraine_ timeline score: 2
Nov 14, 2020 at 21:06 comment added rubiks28 @BoldBen thank you for the clarification, it was very helpful.
Nov 14, 2020 at 21:02 comment added BoldBen If a mortgage is taken out on a property (either to buy the property or to raise money for another purpose) and the customer defaults on the payment the bank will, eventually, foreclose on the property. If someone has a debt which is not related to an asset but the asset is taken under a court order in order for it to be sold to pay off the debt the asset is seized. Only assets where a loan is taken out through the seller in order to pay for the asset is the asset repossessed.
Nov 14, 2020 at 20:57 comment added Peter Shor For houses, you can also say foreclosed on.
Nov 14, 2020 at 20:56 review First posts
Nov 14, 2020 at 21:09
Nov 14, 2020 at 20:51 comment added rubiks28 Thank you very much!
Nov 14, 2020 at 20:51 comment added Weather Vane They are repossessed.
Nov 14, 2020 at 20:48 history asked rubiks28 CC BY-SA 4.0