Timeline for Why doesn’t the verb “read” have a corresponding noun form suffixed with “‑tion/‑ion/‑sion”?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Jul 14, 2020 at 11:43 | vote | accept | Kaspars Siricenko | ||
| Jun 22, 2020 at 14:42 | history | edited | tchrist♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 22, 2020 at 2:27 | history | edited | tchrist♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 21, 2020 at 18:12 | comment | added | tchrist♦ | @chaslyfromUK Updated to include technical explanation from a peer-reviewed professional journal. | |
| Jun 21, 2020 at 18:11 | history | edited | tchrist♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 21, 2020 at 17:56 | history | edited | tchrist♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 21, 2020 at 17:50 | history | edited | tchrist♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 21, 2020 at 17:17 | comment | added | chasly - supports Monica | Nice observation. Yes. Latinate words had the "io" form right back to when Latin was spoken as a living language. English had the "ing" form all the way back to Old English which was a West Germanic language. | |
| Jun 21, 2020 at 16:56 | history | edited | tchrist♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jun 21, 2020 at 16:50 | history | answered | tchrist♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |