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Mar 25, 2019 at 8:19 comment added rexkogitans "past participle" as in I have seen it in opposite to "present participle" as in I am seeing it. Both sentences are active. And it is called "participle", which has something to do with "part"; so the verb-form is not itself a fully functioning verb form like present tense or past tense, but a part of it.
Mar 25, 2019 at 3:52 comment added AmI @user307254- I agree with you that 'passive' and 'active' better describe the participles than 'past' and 'present', even though the passive participle is also used with (past or present) perfect constructions. When used as adjectives, the meaning of a participle is passive or active, as in "the fallen apple" and "the falling apple" (although rexkogitans might argue about "the spoiled apple" being equivalent to "the apple that spoiled [itself]").
Mar 24, 2019 at 22:02 comment added R Mac @rexkogitans Yes, I did. It was the first word "also" and my toddler distracting me that did it. :) Apologies, I will delete my comment. But I do agree with you that "perfect participle" is not a good term due to its rarity and also inaccuracy. "Perfect" is a word used to describe other things in grammar, and it doesn't make sense to use it here.
Mar 24, 2019 at 21:47 comment added rexkogitans @RMac Did you misinterpret my comment?
Mar 24, 2019 at 17:57 comment added rexkogitans @user307254 Also, past participles do not have anything to do with passive voice, necessarily, as in I have seen it.. In addition the term "passive participle" is not really common.
Mar 24, 2019 at 16:13 comment added user307254 Though '-ed forms' are traditionally termed 'Past Participles' they have nothing to do with Grammar Tenses. That's why I would call them 'Passive Participles'.
Mar 24, 2019 at 15:19 comment added tchrist What’s a “perfect module verb”?
Mar 24, 2019 at 11:46 history answered Uhtred Ragnarsson CC BY-SA 4.0