Timeline for Why there are three different sounds for -ed?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 13, 2018 at 17:29 | vote | accept | Deltab | ||
| May 13, 2018 at 17:58 | |||||
| May 13, 2018 at 16:56 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | @tchrist Unlike the noun house, however, the identically spelt verb is also pronounced with a /z/. And don’t forget that the first /z/ in the plural noun form houses is irregular—it shouldn’t systematically be voiced. | |
| May 12, 2018 at 18:17 | comment | added | tchrist♦ | @Araucaria Yes, the plural noun houses has two /z/ phonemes in it, just like the singular verb of the same spelling likewise does. | |
| May 11, 2018 at 22:39 | comment | added | RegDwigнt | @Araucaria oh absolutely. If you deliberately take this answer to be the one and only rule of all language, then you're in for great trouble. As soon as you have a single vowel, everything after it has to be voiced forever and ever. Which is precisely why I've worded the answer exactly like this. It leaves it apparent to anyone that this isn't, and can't be, the one and only rule of all language; that I am not here to explain all of French and Russian; and that it does not cover the pronunciation of cart; but that it does answer the question at hand. | |
| May 11, 2018 at 18:56 | vote | accept | Deltab | ||
| May 11, 2018 at 20:38 | |||||
| May 11, 2018 at 18:50 | comment | added | Deltab | Happens in English happens in French, happens in Russian, all over the place, everywhere. Nothing to write home about. Sandhi generally happens with similar phonemes, as /s/ and /z/, so I didn't take this case as a natural phonetic shift. | |
| May 11, 2018 at 18:47 | history | edited | RegDwigнt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 79 characters in body
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| May 11, 2018 at 18:42 | history | answered | RegDwigнt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |