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Mar 21, 2017 at 13:33 history edited Mari-Lou A CC BY-SA 3.0
further support
Mar 21, 2017 at 10:33 comment added Edwin Ashworth No; you have provided evidence that certain dialects used this PP in the 19th Century, and that it has been used for a certain style effect and by a single person in the 20th. I live 10 minutes away from Yorkshire and have never heard 'I have drunken' in conversation on fairly frequent visits there. Fowler's 'In pure verbal function the en-form is archaic' gainsays 'In a number of English dialects, the past participle drunken is not unusual'.
Mar 21, 2017 at 9:55 history edited Mari-Lou A CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 21, 2017 at 0:32 comment added tchrist I grew up in an area that preserves the archaic adjectival form boughten as in a store-boughten item being the opposite of a home-made one, but still leaving bought for the past participle used as a verb: I’ve never bought something. There are a lot of variants out there.
Mar 20, 2017 at 23:43 comment added Mari-Lou A @EdwinAshworth I think I have provided support that in some dialects the PP is drunken, there are citations from as recently as 2015, they also cover the British, American and Canadian dialects. I thought it worthwhile mentioning. It is probable that the OP has heard this PP in speech, from local residents, is it not? I know that I've heard it in speech when I was a child. Then there are other irregular verbs that take the en suffix: bitten, driven, eaten and fallen
Mar 20, 2017 at 23:27 comment added Edwin Ashworth These are hardly recommendations for idiomatic modern usage. And there is no support for 'In a number of English dialects, the past participle, drunken, is not unusual [today].'
Mar 20, 2017 at 23:19 history answered Mari-Lou A CC BY-SA 3.0