Timeline for "He had me do this" vs "He had me doing this" vs "He had my doing this"
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
18 events
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Mar 12, 2021 at 21:25 | answer | added | Pablo GM | timeline score: 1 | |
Nov 11, 2017 at 19:06 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackEnglish/status/929425029636374529 | ||
Nov 11, 2017 at 18:08 | history | edited | tchrist♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 21, 2016 at 4:17 | vote | accept | Lucidity of Power | ||
Jan 21, 2016 at 2:19 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | It's not grammatically incorrect to say “He said me being here was wonderful”—quite a lot of people would say just that. You can use either a pronoun in the oblique case or a possessive determiner as the subject of a gerund. What you seem to be missing, though, is that have in the sense of ‘cause (someone) to (do something)’ cannot be followed by a gerund. It must be followed by an infinitive—and possessive determiners can never act as the subject of an infinitive. | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 23:03 | comment | added | Tim Ward | @LucidityofPower, CLOSE... but backwards. :) If he'd had me advising this company or If he'd had me advise this company This sentence requires the object pronoun, not the possessive. If you flip it around, you could reword it and use the possessive: "My advising this company likely would have avoided this problem." That's grammatically correct, but no one speaks like that usually. | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 22:55 | history | edited | Lucidity of Power | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 20, 2016 at 22:53 | comment | added | Lucidity of Power | @TimWard So, it WOULD work based on what you're saying then. These are third conditionals--and in this case, these sentences would be correct? "If he had had my advising in this company" vs "If he had had me advise in this company?" | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 22:50 | comment | added | Tim Ward | @LucidityofPower, no, the Third Conditional would express your statement this way: If he had had me do this... In information language, you'll hear people simply contract the noun and verb: If he'd had me do this... Now, you could also easily use the gerund form, doing, but that would only logically work if you are currently doing it. | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 22:46 | history | edited | Lucidity of Power | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 20, 2016 at 22:42 | comment | added | Lucidity of Power | LOL, that would change its meaning quite a bit, though. I was hoping I could just use the "theoretical" "if he had it done" scenario as in if I had horses do all the work instead of cows versus if I would have had horses to do all the work instead of cows. Not sure if that makes sense with the past perfect tense... which feels awkward because "do" is simple present... @TimWard Thanks for that, I'll check it out. | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 22:38 | comment | added | Tim Ward | Check out this grammar site on the Third Conditional. It's the best way to express your "If he had me doing this" example. englishgrammarsecrets.com/thirdconditional/menu.php | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 22:36 | comment | added | FumbleFingers | I think your example If he had me do this from the beginning [something different might have happened actually has less verbs than it should. Strictly speaking it should be If he would have had me do this... (normally contracted to If he'd have had me do it..., but I'm not ashamed to admit that if I were to "expand" it, I'd like as not come out with If he had have had me do it...). | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 22:20 | comment | added | Ricky | Please put the New York Times bit back where it was. | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 22:18 | history | edited | FumbleFingers | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 20, 2016 at 22:17 | answer | added | Ricky | timeline score: 6 | |
Jan 20, 2016 at 22:08 | history | edited | Lucidity of Power | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jan 20, 2016 at 21:54 | history | asked | Lucidity of Power | CC BY-SA 3.0 |