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Jan 13, 2016 at 3:38 vote accept Axel
Jan 10, 2016 at 18:26 comment added Drew @EdwinAshworth: I wouldn't say so. Did you notice the ordinate axis units? There is very little difference between us and gb for this, even in your Ngram. Certainly doesn't seem to be "largely British" - not to me. But we can agree to disagree, presumably.
Jan 10, 2016 at 17:07 comment added Edwin Ashworth @Drew But I'd say these do.
Jan 10, 2016 at 6:56 comment added Drew @EdwinAshworth: "Largely British"? Largely? Evidence of that? This Ngram doesn't really back that up, FWIW.
Jan 9, 2016 at 22:49 answer added Benjamin Harman timeline score: 0
Jan 9, 2016 at 21:13 answer added Colin Fine timeline score: 1
Jan 9, 2016 at 20:44 comment added Mark Hubbard @BrianDonovan- You should post your comment as an answer. Well done!
Jan 9, 2016 at 20:29 comment added Brian Donovan Excellent question. It seems pleonastic to me too, like "first and foremost" or "each and every." Google Books' Ngram utility shows a long decline in the frequency of this collocation through the twentieth century after its holding pretty steady through the nineteenth. Some corpora (like that selected for the link) show a bit of a resurgence in the twenty-first; others do not. Specifically American and British corpora do not seem to show much difference between them, though.
Jan 9, 2016 at 20:20 comment added Edwin Ashworth It's fine and dandy in some registers. As you say, largely British; as you imply, a redundancy; not often used nowadays. Normally better avoided, but not ungrammatical.
Jan 9, 2016 at 20:14 review First posts
Jan 9, 2016 at 20:25
Jan 9, 2016 at 20:13 history asked Axel CC BY-SA 3.0