Timeline for Contracting I'd've for I would have [duplicate]
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
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| Aug 4, 2015 at 9:09 | history | closed | RegDwigнt | Duplicate of Is "I'd've" proper use of the English language? | |
| Aug 4, 2015 at 1:50 | answer | added | deadrat | timeline score: 0 | |
| Aug 3, 2015 at 23:35 | comment | added | TimR | I say "I'd've done it differently" or "I woulda done it differently" but never "I'da done it differently". | |
| Aug 3, 2015 at 22:17 | comment | added | Sven Yargs | Closely related: Can a word be contracted twice (e.g. "I'ven't")? | |
| Aug 3, 2015 at 21:40 | comment | added | John Lawler | Informal would be Ida, which is the way it sounds. The final /əv/ in I'd've is largely fictional; in practice it's just a shwa. | |
| Aug 3, 2015 at 20:32 | comment | added | matt | It depends on what 'too much' is for you, but I'd say that most people would notice and consider it informal. Writing how things sound instead of how they are written generally looks pretty informal, so I'd avoid it unless you're chatting on the Internet or something. | |
| Aug 3, 2015 at 20:30 | comment | added | D4RKS0UL | :D ok, let's crank it up a notch—what if you saw such contraction in writing? would it be too much? | |
| Aug 3, 2015 at 20:28 | comment | added | matt |
Yes. I'd've sounds almost exactly like I'd have in spoken English unless you're a classically trained speaker with perfect enunciation and/or put emphasis on the space between I'd and have. I imagine you'd raise more eyebrows by consistently pronouncing I'd have correctly with a notable space in between.
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| Aug 3, 2015 at 20:26 | history | asked | D4RKS0UL | CC BY-SA 3.0 |