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Timeline for The history of the use of "man"

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Jan 16, 2013 at 7:45 history edited user2683 CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 21, 2011 at 6:59 history edited Thursagen CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 20, 2011 at 13:26 comment added Colin Fine This answer is wrong and a misrepresentation. It is true that in most uses "he" is not, and never was generic. But indefinite "he" (e.g. "He that hath eares to heare, let him here") could always comprise either sex. In legal and parliamentary documents it was felt necessary to spell this out, (but until very recently this was not usual in ordinary contexts). This led to extra wordage in parliamentary papers, and the avowed purpose of the Interpretation Act 1850 was to "shorten the language", not make any kind of political point.
May 20, 2011 at 12:39 history edited Thursagen CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 20, 2011 at 9:37 history answered Thursagen CC BY-SA 3.0