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Jul 10, 2015 at 15:21 comment added Sankarane @rogermue: Your example does not refer to the entry of the thief in the past. It implies future action, completed "by" a certain time. That's why it takes future perfect tense.
Jul 10, 2015 at 13:39 history edited Sankarane CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 10, 2015 at 4:52 comment added rogermue Grammar tense and time referred to do not always correspond. We can make an assumption with high probability with future perfect: The thief will have entered the house in the night/at night. But we refer to an event in the past and not in the future.
Jul 10, 2015 at 0:52 comment added Sankarane A lot of it is natural or spontaneous, though the rules of grammar may not be obvious.
Jul 10, 2015 at 0:50 vote accept zeebo
Jul 10, 2015 at 0:46 history answered Sankarane CC BY-SA 3.0