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May 12, 2011 at 2:30 vote accept Fixee
May 4, 2011 at 14:55 comment added Colin Fine To be picky: essentially nothing in Latin "goes back to Sanskrit" (there may have been a very small number of loanwords). What I think you mean is that the ending goes back to Indo-European, and a related form occurs in Sanskrit.
May 3, 2011 at 23:43 history edited MikeVaughan CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 3, 2011 at 23:12 history edited MikeVaughan CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 3, 2011 at 23:06 history answered MikeVaughan CC BY-SA 3.0