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Jul 15, 2017 at 0:55 history protected tchrist
May 23, 2017 at 12:39 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://stackoverflow.com/ with https://stackoverflow.com/
Feb 22, 2017 at 19:42 history edited herisson CC BY-SA 3.0
added 28 characters in body; edited title
Nov 25, 2014 at 9:56 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackEnglish/status/537183122652405760
Nov 24, 2014 at 21:05 answer added John Lawler timeline score: 3
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:43 vote accept gaborsch
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:41 comment added oerkelens I did that now :)
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:40 answer added oerkelens timeline score: 5
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:31 comment added gaborsch @oerkelens this was so accurate that you could add it as an answer, too.
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:25 comment added oerkelens That is why I added in most of the English speaking world. Not only is it uncommon in most of the English-speaking world, it is illegal, and seen as morally objectable in most of the English speaking world. So to answer your question: in that case interpreting marriable as imperative would not be seen as proper, it would be seen as highly improper.
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:24 comment added gaborsch @oerkelens That's a cultural question, and not a linguistic.
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:22 comment added oerkelens It is certainly uncommon nowadays to order women to marry, or to assume they should marry :)
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:21 comment added gaborsch @oerkelens I think in this case (marri(age)able) it comes from the context.
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:19 comment added oerkelens I think in general no imperative is implied, just the possibility. Certainly in the case of a marriageable or less archaic marriable woman, implying an imperative will be frowned upon in most of the English-speaking world. Closeable means it can be closed. whether it has to be closed depends on context.
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:16 review First posts
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:46
Nov 24, 2014 at 19:14 history asked gaborsch CC BY-SA 3.0