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Nov 8 at 18:50 comment added Alexis Wilke @JaredUpdike Very interesting. In French we cannot remove the article (dans le futur), so maybe the Americans used French for that one.
Aug 28, 2022 at 9:15 comment added Bob Briscoe This earned a down-vote on two counts. I don't see any difference between the two definitions. "The time or a period of time following the moment of speaking or writing," is just a longer way of saying "from now on". Also a poor example has been chosen, with 'near' qualifying the second case.
Jun 21, 2020 at 9:19 review Suggested edits
Jun 21, 2020 at 9:20
Jan 29, 2020 at 15:50 history edited avpaderno CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 8 characters in body
May 6, 2016 at 19:06 comment added Jared Updike @Pifagor: it is an adverbially phrase. I doubt it is short for anything. It is clearly Latinate: Latin has no articles (the, a, an) so a preposition followed by a noun is common (yuni.com/library/latin_3.html): e.g. "in loco parentis" (in place of the parent), an adverbially phrase (used in English/legal jargon). In fact, "in futuro" is the Latin equivalent to "in future", so American English added an unnecessary word. By the way, adjectives can be used as nouns (substantives): the young, the restless, the good, the bad, the ugly, without needing a noun to modify.
Oct 26, 2015 at 14:40 comment added Pifagor What is the origin of the expression "in future"? It does sound odd. Could it be an ellipsis of some specified or implied noun, as in "in future events" or "in future times"?
Oct 23, 2011 at 1:06 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackEnglish/status/127913749142188035
Aug 26, 2011 at 19:25 comment added Peter Shor I'd say "exclusively British." I don't believe I've ever heard it from Americans.
Aug 26, 2011 at 12:29 history edited avpaderno CC BY-SA 3.0
improved formatting and punctuation
Sep 8, 2010 at 16:51 vote accept Mysterion
Aug 26, 2010 at 20:02 history answered avpaderno CC BY-SA 2.5