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Timeline for Use of the word "beeves"

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Nov 26, 2016 at 3:05 comment added Hot Licks It should be noted that when "beef" is used in the sense of "complaint", the plural is "beefs".
Nov 26, 2016 at 2:50 answer added davef timeline score: 1
Jun 29, 2015 at 4:06 history edited ermanen CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 29, 2015 at 4:02 answer added ermanen timeline score: 0
Jun 29, 2015 at 3:22 comment added Hot Licks I do recall hearing "beeves" used on the old Rawhide TV western series (1959-1965), when referring to a herd of cattle. Don't recall hearing it anywhere else. I have no idea whether that term was actually used in the time period represented (late 1800s), or whether Hollywood writers simply thought it sounded good.
Jun 28, 2015 at 16:06 answer added Vian timeline score: 2
Aug 4, 2014 at 11:59 comment added Mitch @tchrist Yes, I agree (I was wrong as I was referring to multiple cow meats). All that is to emphasize that the '-ves' construction does not exist except humorously in modern standard English (whatever the past may have been).
Aug 4, 2014 at 8:21 answer added Sven Yargs timeline score: 7
Aug 4, 2014 at 5:20 comment added tchrist @Mitch Yes to the first part (“beef a mass noun”) but no to the second (“sometimes you can say beefs”). It is only possible to have several “beefs” when beef has the sense of a quarrel, which is necessarily a count noun. When you have several types of dead-cow beef, then it is just as it is with sheep: you have several types of beef or sheep, not several beefs or sheeps. In other words, you use a partitive construction on the mass noun.
Aug 4, 2014 at 4:45 comment added Mitch For anybody who is a language learner, 'beef' is a mass noun in Modern English. 'beeves' is only a joke. In the rare occasion that more than one beef needs to be referred to, 'beefs' is appropriate.
Aug 4, 2014 at 4:45 answer added Michael Lorton timeline score: 2
Aug 3, 2014 at 18:39 history edited tchrist CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 3, 2014 at 18:38 comment added tchrist If you are an English-language learner, you might enjoy our sister-site for English Language Learners. That’s because our sister-site is a Q&A site especially made for learners, in contrast to the current English Language and Usage site, which is instead “a Q&A site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts”.
Jul 31, 2014 at 17:19 comment added Fattie Every single mass noun can also be used for the category, is commonly used in plural, and this is very commonplace.
Jul 31, 2014 at 17:16 answer added Fattie timeline score: 0
Jul 31, 2014 at 12:40 answer added fuandon timeline score: 6
Jul 31, 2014 at 12:34 answer added Rohith timeline score: 3
Jul 31, 2014 at 12:23 history edited bib CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 31, 2014 at 12:18 answer added Dan Bron timeline score: -2
Jul 31, 2014 at 12:14 comment added Dan Bron In short, in modern English, we wouldn't. Nowadays, "beef" is used as a mass noun, which can't take a plural. If we want to distinguish a particular piece of beef, we'd do just that: say "a piece of beef", whose plural would be "pieces of beef". Other quantifiers are possible (e.g., cuts, slices, chunks, etc).
Jul 31, 2014 at 12:12 comment added Tim Lymington "Sense 1" without a reference is not helpful. But beef can also mean cattle, as in "a hundred head of beef"; beeves is a (largely archaic or dialect) extension of this.
Jul 31, 2014 at 12:11 answer added Ronan timeline score: 0
Jul 31, 2014 at 12:09 review First posts
Jul 31, 2014 at 13:21
Jul 31, 2014 at 12:07 history asked Zara Butters CC BY-SA 3.0