Timeline for Grammatically, why does it seem that 'that' can't follow the verb expressing propositional attitude in this sentence?
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| Apr 24, 2014 at 23:37 | history | edited | Janus Bahs Jacquet | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 24, 2014 at 23:31 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | @Edwin, I am one of those unfortunate people who neither owns nor has ever read CGEL and similar works, so since I couldn’t provide any real sources for what is essentially my own theory, I copped out with a disclaimer. It seems I’m not quite the first to think of this after all, though (would be nothing short of bizarre if I were). This article (p. 11–12) draws a very similar, though much more detailed and technical, conclusion. | |
| Apr 24, 2014 at 23:20 | comment | added | Edwin Ashworth | 'I have not seen this referenced anywhere as such, but I can think of no way to construct counter-examples, either.' I wish all contributors were as modest. | |
| Apr 24, 2014 at 23:08 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | @EdwinAshworth, yes, that is exactly what I meant by ‘overtly marked’: that a complementiser is present. I should mention that this blocking of a complementiser in a subjectless complement clause is found in all the Scandinavian languages, too. I think the same restriction applies in German, but my German is not good enough that I can ‘hear’ whether it sounds right or wrong with or without the complementiser. | |
| Apr 24, 2014 at 16:50 | comment | added | Edwin Ashworth | Looks risky but good. 'That' has different incarnations; if I might switch into French at key points: The new car that I hope that my cheating husband will buy me. = The new car lequel I hope que my cheating husband will buy me. The second 'that', ='que', is the complementiser. So your 'A complement clause without a subject must not be overtly marked.' can be restated 'A complement clause without a subject does not have a complementiser.' | |
| Apr 24, 2014 at 15:36 | history | answered | Janus Bahs Jacquet | CC BY-SA 3.0 |