Timeline for What does "I did but half fancy" mean?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Feb 11, 2014 at 2:53 | comment | added | Niel de Beaudrap | I think "I only, merely" is much closer to the meaning of "I did but" in general (see e.g. uses in the King James Bible). In this case, however, it is perhaps being used as an understatement: by saying that he only half-fancied it, he is saying that he didn't actually fancy it. | |
| Feb 11, 2014 at 1:03 | vote | accept | ftkg | ||
| Feb 11, 2014 at 1:01 | comment | added | Oldcat | close, but I think "I did not" is closer. I think the closer to 'not fancy at all' you get, the better for this sentence. He clearly seems to be making a point of his bad decision! | |
| Feb 11, 2014 at 0:57 | comment | added | ftkg | Is it correct that the "I did but" construct = "I only, merely"? | |
| Feb 11, 2014 at 0:15 | history | answered | Oldcat | CC BY-SA 3.0 |