Timeline for by 5.30 or until 5.30/ why future tense?

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Feb 9, 2020 at 20:00	review	Close votes
Feb 26, 2020 at 3:05
Feb 9, 2020 at 8:35	comment	added	BoldBen		There is a way that the second one makes sense but it is very unlikely to be used with the word only or the phrase they will be closed now. If it is 4:50 in the morning and the shops open very early someone might say "The shops will be open by 5:30, you can get some milk then." This means that at 5:30 the shops will be open because they start to open a bit before 5:30. The implication is, though, that they are not likely to be open much earlier than 5:15.
Dec 31, 2013 at 14:10	history	edited	Kit Z. Fox♦	CC BY-SA 3.0	appended answer 143948 as supplemental
Dec 31, 2013 at 9:42	answer	added	Damkerng T.		timeline score: 2
Dec 31, 2013 at 7:48	answer	added	Peter		timeline score: 3
Dec 31, 2013 at 7:22	comment	added	F.E.		Suppose it is now 7 PM, then "The shops are open only until 5:30 PM. They will be closed by now." The speaker thinks the shops are probably closed, since it is now 7 PM. The 2nd version of yours doesn't make sense to me either. -- The modals "will" and "would" have multiple uses, and many of them have nothing to do with future time; well, not directly. In my version of your #1 version, the word "will" has a meaning more like "ought to" or "should", e.g. "They should be closed by now".
Dec 31, 2013 at 7:07	comment	added	akkatracker		The second one doesn't really make sense. Can't really explain it though
Dec 31, 2013 at 7:02	history	asked	nima	CC BY-SA 3.0