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Aug 17, 2013 at 6:47 comment added Jeff Cohan To me, both versions turn the apology on its head. Why should I apologize for something you are doing? Why not just say, "I apologize for emailing you" or "I apologize for any inconvenience my email caused you"?
Aug 16, 2013 at 13:54 comment added Appulus Thanks @TimLymington and @RegDwigh; I had a feeling there was already a question about this (but just didn't know what keywords to search).
Aug 16, 2013 at 12:13 comment added Tim Lymington Also related: english.stackexchange.com/q/81525/8019
Aug 16, 2013 at 12:05 comment added TrevorD Neither makes any sense unless the sentence continues with e.g. "... receiving spam e-mails apparently sent by me" or "... receiving emails from me after asking to be removed from my mailing list." Else, why are you apologising that I receive e-mails?!
Aug 16, 2013 at 12:02 history closed RegDwigнt Duplicate of When is a 'gerund' supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?
Aug 16, 2013 at 11:46 review First posts
Aug 16, 2013 at 12:06
Aug 16, 2013 at 11:37 answer added Jai Dongre timeline score: -2
Aug 16, 2013 at 11:30 history asked Appulus CC BY-SA 3.0