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Jul 29, 2017 at 2:12 history protected tchrist
Jul 29, 2017 at 2:07 comment added Hassan Suppose, after being given the warning, I said "I am a black man." The police have just guaranteed that will be used against me in a court of law, haven't they?
Jun 1, 2013 at 3:46 answer added davarinofuntucson timeline score: 0
May 31, 2013 at 19:35 vote accept Darrel Hoffman
May 31, 2013 at 14:21 answer added John Lawler timeline score: 10
May 31, 2013 at 13:58 history edited RegDwigнt
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May 31, 2013 at 11:20 comment added user32047 Perhaps it's presenting a worst-case scenario to cover themselves. If they use what the accused says, they can say, "We told you we'd use it!" If they don't, the accused isn't going to complain that they broke their promise.
May 31, 2013 at 11:18 answer added TrevorD timeline score: 1
May 31, 2013 at 10:52 answer added Jon Hanna timeline score: 4
May 31, 2013 at 6:39 review Close votes
May 31, 2013 at 13:58
May 31, 2013 at 6:21 comment added Kris Per grammar, this is a NARQ. Both can & will are well defined and they are used in their standard sense here. If you are debating the interpretation and its implications, that would be off-topic. Either way the Q needs to be closed.
May 31, 2013 at 6:10 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackEnglish/status/340349606644830208
May 31, 2013 at 5:54 comment added Stan I am not sure about the grammar part, but Hollywood doesn't have it wrong -- see the case document Miranda v. Arizona - 384 U.S. 436 (1966): "... The warning of the right to remain silent must be accompanied by the explanation that anything said can and will be used against the individual in court. ..."
May 31, 2013 at 5:34 comment added Taxtwice This isn't a bad point, but I think it entirely depends on what the PERP says, if they even say anything that at all. Saying nothing at all renders "will" void, unless silence suddenly becomes incriminating.
May 31, 2013 at 5:27 history asked Darrel Hoffman CC BY-SA 3.0